Showing posts with label relative pronoun. Show all posts
Showing posts with label relative pronoun. Show all posts

Tuesday, April 25, 2023

1 Timothy 3:16

 1 Timothy 3:16

This is one of the major passages where people who hold tightly to the KJV will condemn other versions of “removing God” from the Bible. More specifically, if you open all the versions and compare the opening words (within the context of the chapter), the KJV highlights the deity of Jesus, while it is quite easy to judge other versions of eliminating this doctrine from the text.


(Not to mention the hundreds of other passages where we can argue for the deity of Christ, but I digress on that point.)


This is, however, not only a good example to show the issue at hand but also a key text to illustrate what’s really occurring. And when we get to the bottom of it, we’ll see how these “modern versions” can be so obviously different.


It’s simply a matter of textual criticism—and there are other posts about the practice of textual criticism, the methods, the manuscripts, the reliability of the NT, etc. The point here is simply that the KJV is based on manuscripts that say “God” in 1 Timothy 3:16, while most of the other versions are based on manuscripts that have the Greek word for “who.”


It’s easy to say, “Well, that’s ridiculous. Why would anyone want a Bible that doesn’t say, ‘God’?” The issue is not what we want. The practice of textual criticism strives to be bias free, searching for the original words of the author’s manuscript. Since all we have are copies, this can be difficult. Actually, in this text, it’s not very difficult at all.


Below is the external evidence and internal evidence (i.e., style, grammar) for each of the major readings.


θεός (theos, “God”)


    External evidence: Byzantine text along with these manuscripts: c Ac C2 D2 Ψ [88 pc] 1739 1881 M vgms


    Internal arguments: The only possible reason “God” makes sense in the original is because there is no antecedent for “who.” See below.


Another argument here would be that “God” was considered a nomina sacrum (basically an abbreviation for words often repeated or significant words). So all four letters would not be written out, just the theta and the sigma with a line over it. A capital theta and a capital omicron look very similar. One could make a more plausible argument that a scribe got confused between these forms. The words for “God” and “who” would look very similar then.



ὅς (hos, “who”)


    External evidence: ℵ* A* C* F G 33 365 pc Did Epiph. This is very strong support, since the second correctors of these manuscripts often changed readings to match other medieval manuscripts.


    Where are the Western witnesses? Nearly all of them, including D*, support the neuter relative pronoun. Though not the masculine “who,” this reading supports this relative pronoun, since there is no logical way to change ὅ to θεός.


    Internal arguments: It is highly unlikely—maybe even impossible—that a scribe would take “God” (ascribing deity to Jesus) and change it to “who.” However, a scribe is more more likely to change a relative pronoun to “God,” whether intentionally or unintentionally. By the time of our first manuscripts with this change, Christ’s deity had been recognized and debated, as well as deemed an essential church doctrine. It would be easy to go back through the manuscripts and insert the doctrine wherever readings allowed for it.


What about not having an antecedent for “who?” Colossians 1:15 and Philippians 2:6 are also examples of early hymns that biblical authors stuck into their passages. This is stylistic. We don’t need to look for an antecedent. We obviously know it’s about Jesus.


Conclusion: The fact that the Western manuscripts have the neuter pronoun is significant. Per the NET, this means that the “God” variant is not early enough to be in any of the Western witnesses. It originated after the 2nd century. The external evidence is very strong for the masculine relative pronoun, and the neuter pronoun is a correction to agree with “mystery” earlier in the passage.


The relative pronoun seems to be more supported on both external and internal evidence. When we read “who” in modern versions, we must guard against decrying the heresy of removing Jesus’ deity from the Bible. It’s more like we are depending on more accurate witnesses and logic of scribal tendencies. We are not denying Christ’s deity. Jesus is God. But 1 Timothy 3 says “who.”


Thursday, February 16, 2023

Gender, Case, and Number of Pronouns

As a rule, all pronouns agree with their antecedent in case, number, and gender. This applies to personal, demonstrative, and relative pronouns. If the reader is unfamiliar with “case,” see a beginner grammar on NT Greek, or I’m sure I’ll have a post explaining the basics.

Antecedent should be familiar from any grammar course. It’s the word that any pronoun replaces or references in its context. E.g.: Peter went to the store to buy his sister a birthday present. (His refers back to Peter—okay, elementary school is now complete).

Case of Pronouns: The case of a pronoun more than likely will be determined by its function in the clause. (Subjects are usually nominative; objects are usually accusative; various cases for objects of prepositions). However, there are times when the case of a pronoun (whether relative or demonstrative) adapts to the case of its antecedent. This can be helpful when we are unsure what the antecedent is.

The are a few examples where pronouns do not agree with antecedents in gender and number, but these are extremely rare (see 2 John 1). Therefore, if someone is arguing for a change in gender/number or making a key exegetical conclusion based on a switch in agreement, it’s best to take another look.

Here’s an example from Wallace’s Greek Grammar.

Ὅταν ἔλθῃ ὁ παράκλητος ὃν ἐγὼ πέμψω ὑμῖν παρὰ τοῦ πατρός, τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς ἀληθείας ὃ παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκπορεύεται, ἐκεῖνος μαρτυρήσει περὶ ἐμοῦ· (Joh 15:26)

The demonstrative pronoun “this” is nominative, masculine, singular. Many see John (or Jesus) as affirming the personhood and even masculine gender of the Spirit (if we can even use such terms for a spirit). Why else would the gender be masculine?

But the antecedent is not “Spirit of truth.” It’s Paraclete, which is a nominative, masculine, singular noun. This is true in each passage in John that discusses the Paraclete. We can affirm that the Spirit is a person, but we cannot conclude anything about gender. Grammar is functioning here as expected. (Not to mention “Spirit” is a neuter noun, so making arguments based on gender of nouns is a bit silly).