John 1:14-18

 “Now the Word became flesh and took up residence among us. We saw his glory – the glory of the one and only, full of grace and truth, who came from the Father. John testified about him and shouted out, “This one was the one about whom I said, ‘He who comes after me is greater than I am, because he existed before me.’” For we have all received from his fullness one gracious gift after another. For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came about through Jesus Christ. No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known.”

— ‭‭John‬ ‭1‬:‭14‬-‭18‬‬

To explain “Word,” we would need to go back to v. 1. Some focus on the Jewish background (basically God’s creative word in creation—at least in their understanding). Also points to Wisdom in Proverbs 9. Eventually, this led rabbis to teach that the Torah was from the beginning (Gen Rab 1:2). Others on the Greek background (impersonal force that binds universe/ proto-gnostic ideas). Perhaps John used this word to reach both audiences in their respective cultures. 

Building off v. 1, this passage at least implies (if not teaches directly) Jesus’ deity and humanity. The logos is divine but is distinct from God. 

Word became flesh would shock both audiences. This is impossible. Dwelling is the word for “tabernacle,” showing that God is pleased to now live among humans. See v. 1 again that the word is deity. NET makes excellent note that John has most concise argument for dual nature of Jesus.

(Jesus was actually incarnate in v. 9. But in vv 9-13, John is talking about light. All terms are neuter. There is a name in v. 12, but not much description of the person. V 14 is not a repeat of the incarnation but offers the purpose of His coming. He is revelation of the Father, and the best way to do that is to become human.)

One and only son= unique son. One of a kind. V 12 will have all who follow Jesus as “sons” of God. But Jesus is the one who represents the Father, knows Him fully has seen Him. This is the same word throughout John.

No one has ever seen God? Don’t need to argue with people like Moses or Elijah or Isaiah. No, we can say they saw manifestations of God’s glory in various ways, I suppose. That’s really not John’s point. Jesus has been with God and is deity in the way that only He can make God known. 

Grace “against” grace is more likely “upon” grace, as in accumulating grace. Grace come after Moses through Jesus, but He cannot replace former grace.

This is the pinnacle statement of the prologue because the rest of the book will show us not only Jesus’ ministry/teaching and its purpose but also reveal the character of God (i.e., love and desire for the redemption of the world).

In v. 18, NET has translated “himself God” as appositional to “only one.” The participle “one being” modifies “God,” so this is three descriptions of Jesus, not two. Bart Ehrman argues that an adjective followed by a noun of same case, number, gender, cannot be a substantival adjective (at least not in NT). But “only one” is substantival in 1:14, so it has precedent in this passage. And there are other passages where a substantival adjective is followed by a noun, even though it agrees in case, number, gender (see Rom 1:30; Gal 3:9; 1 Tim 1:9; 2 Pet 2:5).

As in John 1:1, God in v. 18 has no article and carries qualitative force. “Divine,” not “the god.”

Jesus will say a couple times, He who has seen me has seen the Father. Points back to this verse. I don’t think we can totally disregard other verses that describe the character of God throughout the Bible. But if we want the best starting point to see what God is like, I would suggest we look to Jesus. 

(I still prefer the synoptic gospels though, haha).